HC Q33: Why is He called God's "only begotten Son," since we also are the children of God?
HC A33: Because Christ alone is the eternal, natural Son of God, but we are the children of God by adoption, through grace, for His sake.
a) Read John 1:14. The KJV translates the Greek word monogenes as only begotten.
then read the notes below from the NET Bible (looking up the references), and then
Define what begotten really means in this verse?
‘begotten’ Or “of the unique one.” Although this word is often translated “only begotten,” such a translation is misleading, since in English it appears to express a metaphysical relationship. The word in Greek was used of an only child (a son [Luke 7:12, 9:38] or a daughter [Luke 8:42]). It was also used of something unique (only one of its kind) such as the mythological Phoenix (1 Clem. 25:2). From here it passes easily to a description of Isaac (Heb 11:17 and Josephus, Ant., 1.13.1 [1.222]) who was not Abraham’s only son, but was one-of-a-kind because he was the child of the promise. Thus the word means “one-of-a-kind” and is reserved for Jesus in the Johannine literature of the NT. While all Christians are children of God, Jesus is God’s Son in a unique, one-of-a-kind sense. The word is used in this way in all its uses in the Gospel of John (1:14, 1:18, 3:16, and 3:18).
BTW We are talking about a different word to the one used in Acts 13:33, Heb 1:5 and Heb 5:5.
b) Read Eph 1:5-6, 1 John 3:1. Make a list of ways in which our sonship is different to Jesus’s.
HC Q34: Why do you call Him "our Lord"?
HC A34: Because not with silver or gold, but with His precious blood, He has redeemed and purchased us, body and soul, from sin and from all the power of the devil, to be His own.[1]
c) Read Titus 2:11-14, 1 Pet 1:18-19, 1 Cor 7:22-23. In what way do these verses show why we call Jesus “Lord”?
d) Read Romans 10:9. What is the main meaning of “Lord” here?
e) Bearing in mind the OT meaning, how can you reconcile the answers of c and d? (Hint: its to do with the meaning of Yaweh)
